JFRD Standard Operating Guideline (SOG) Practice Test

These questions are part of the practice quiz. Start practicing

• Which description defines Alert 1?
• Which statement best describes the two unit categories assigned to a structure fire?
• What is the audio cue that indicates a Mayday event?
• What structure is established to coordinate multi-agency responsibilities and stakeholder interests during a vessel fire?
• In complexes with private hydrants, the third arriving engine should stage where?
• What is the function of B flight?
• Train derailments: primary concern of JFRD personnel should be the
• The main power to the skyway station is supplied to substations located at which locations?
• What is the standard issue radio for the JFRD?
• All personnel operating at a crime scene are subject to what legal process?
• What type is the rope used by JFRD for all utility and safety lines?
• Hoistway doors are provided with which feature to allow emergency access?
• Who designates the radio talk group to be used for the RIT operation?
• Hydrant 3 at Cecil airport is located where?
• In a kernmantle rope, the load-carrying core provides approximately what percent of tensile strength?
• Available units shall acknowledge by advising on the appropriate talk group which message?
• Which item is a post-landfall operational focus?
• If the wheels on a Skyway car are locked, the brakes can be released by which method?
• Which radio system does JFRD primarily use for communications?
• Which equipment do JFRD personnel wear for respiratory protection?
• What is the exception to the rule requiring tac support consultation before pulling a stuck vehicle?
• Who is the only person who communicates with the ATU, with ground guide contacting ATU via FRCC frequency?
• What is the minimum clearance required for the ATU approach path?
• 36-60 hours prior to landfall corresponds to which hurricane stage?
• Which notifications shall generate the 10 minute increment notification from FRCC?
• Field personnel shall inform FRCC as soon as the power is restored. Which entity should be informed?
• The hazardous areas around jet engines are dependent on which factor?
• Who makes the determination regarding entry into a bomb perimeter?
• What is the purpose of incident command?
• For elevator incidents (except stuck-door calls), which entities should be called to the scene?
• Sirens should be used to warn traffic with minimal disturbance. Which option best describes this guideline?
• What is the maximum pressure for supplying the international shore connection at the flange?
• Incident command operating requirements include which two elements?
• Recreational fire is defined as which of the following?
• What type of response is required anytime the SAR system is used?
• Which station has a Jon boat on lift?
• To protect passengers during a machine room fire, which action should be taken?
• What does the acronym ATCT stand for in these procedures?
• The 10 minute notifications will continue until FRCC has been advised that which condition?
• Which option is included on Rehab Form 2?
• Level 2 staging will require designation of a what and formal what?
• The blue light stations house switches that perform which action at the affected station?
• HEPA masks are provided to prevent which illnesses?
• Which option is a listed consideration for ladder placement regarding the jack deployment?
• Which FRL indicates a fire situation is extreme and the ability to respond will exceed district capability, with outside assistance needed beyond a 24-hour period?
• Where is the Y-Junction located?
• How many decon types are described in the material?
• Which item is included in ladder RIT equipment used for locating in smoky conditions?
• Which directional area around jet engines should generally be avoided?
• The decon team is comprised of which station?
• Who may cancel ATU after evaluation indicates it is not needed?
• If conditions warrant an unscheduled evacuation of the station, the officer in charge will notify which position first?
• Which description defines Alert 2?
• Which stations are covered at all times?
• Which item is uniquely listed for ladder RIT equipment and involves a specialized saw?
• Which boat has a beam of 22 feet?
• Minimum rehab time after using a single 45-minute SCBA or 40 minutes of intense work without SCBA is:
• 84 hours prior to landfall corresponds to which hurricane stage?
• Emergency response does not absolve the operator to drive with what?
• Under what condition can stations 16 and 56 avoid a transfer engine?
• To transmit and receive using this repeater, JFRD radios must be set to which channel?
• What is the total vehicle capacity of Skyway cars?
• Rehab 37 will be dispatched on which triggers?
• Who communicates with the victim on the radio talk group?
• FRL 1 indicates what about fire activity?
• What is the maximum systolic blood pressure according to SOG 436 rehab?
• Administrative and chief officers have programmable portable radios that are capable of scanning multiple flights and talk groups simultaneously.
• Who notifies the Air Traffic Control Tower when Alert 1 is terminated?
• Which channel handles suppression incidents requiring four or fewer units and is monitored by FRCC at all times?
• Level 1 staging is employed for incidents that require what?
• Which statement correctly describes the DVRS's channel switching process?
• Decontaminated personnel must undergo medical evaluation at what time?
• Which group uses a differently programmed radio system specifically for lifeguards in Jacksonville?
• Which item is specified as engine company equipment for shipboard fires?
• Which statement about Level 2 staging is true?
• Only the patient or the complainant may request cancellation of responding units prior to arrival of JFRD or JSO personnel. Who may request cancellation?
• The fast attack mode should be brief lasting how long?
• Nothing showing generally requires what by the first arriving unit?
• A critical aspect of hazmat response is which of the following?
• Which element must be attached to every entrant's harness?
• The drought index ranges from 0 to 800. Which option correctly shows this range?
• Shipboard Fire/Incident: The ultimate authority and responsibility for safety lies with which role?
• In engine-room fires, the foam should be applied to sustain a duration of how many minutes?
• According to SOG 436 rehab, what is the acceptable systolic blood pressure range?
• Which statement best describes the Metro-Jax talkgroup?
• Which type of arrival shall always have priority?
• For commercial land clearing using an Air Curtain Incinerator, the burn must be at least how many feet away from occupied buildings?
• During a W4 response, why is rehab important?
• An MCI is an incident that strains response due to the number and severity of the casualties. Which elements are overwhelmed?
• Open burning causing excessive visible emissions is defined as opacity equal to or greater than what percentage?
• Groups are designated by
• During a Mayday incident, FRCC will activate which alert?
• Which is the second type of decon described?
• In MCI RPM-P protocol, when should a patient be tagged red?
• SCBAs compliance is based on which NFPA standard?
• During extended operations in ICS, supervising personnel will be referred to by their what?
• In a hoistway fire, what is the primary hazard?
• Which channel is described as not routinely monitored by FRCC?
• The first ladder at all structure fires is designated as which of the following?
• Permitted land clearing is allowed from 0900 until what time?
• Compressed air in SCBA cylinders shall meet the requirements of which specification?
• Which statement best describes FRL 5?
• FRL 3 indicates what?
• Which MCI role is responsible for triage duties?
• In derailments, what equipment should be adequate to force entry into cars?
• The elevation in some areas of the San Marco section exceeds how many feet?
• Which organization has a portable repeater that can be placed on the vessel for communications?
• What must the primary suppression apparatus provide at the scene of all structure fires?
• Which system enables direct communication between FRCC and other county agencies?
• After a report of 'situation stable', which statement best describes how additional units should proceed?
• If there is only 1 entry/exit point into the confined space, what should be placed in the confined space and what should be applied?
• Exceed posted speed limit only under - defined as
• Tac Support is not routinely monitored by FRCC on which channel?
• In hazmat operations, the warm zone is restricted to which items?
• Suppression apparatus assigned to which teams shall not be used as transfer companies?
• Prior to evacuation on all fire alarm responses, which should be considered?
• Units housed in structures not suitable for winds above what mph must be evacuated?
• What phrase accompanies the repeated FRCC transmissions?
• Which asset is the lift-equipped vessel?
• What does NiCad stand for?
• What should the RIT OIC do to assess exterior access and delays?
• FRL 4 fire situation may include carryover from the previous day and new fires starting. Which FRL describes this?
• Which statement describes the passing rule when the lead vehicle is having mechanical difficulties?
• Which item is listed for engine RIT equipment but not listed for ladder or squad?
• The key to personnel tracking is which role?
• How many blue light stations are on each station loading platform?
• Which color code indicates Deceased in MCI triage?
• The W4 signal is a policy created to which objective?
• Which item is not listed as information FRCC will obtain about a hazmat incident?
• The Digital Vehicular Repeater System (DVRS) is best described as which of the following?
• FRCC will conduct roll call by calling which group first?
• The control room inside the Skyway Express control center building is located on which floor?
• In these guidelines, what does transfer refer to with suppression apparatus?
• With a safety factor of 15:1 accounted for, the actual usable capacity of the line is what?
• Available units shall acknowledge dispatch by advising on the appropriate talk group for the benefit of surrounding units. What should they advise?
• Who maintains the integrity of the Action Circle on extrication scenes?
• Fires in elevator hoistways will generally be which size?
• Which of the following is NOT listed as an IC responsibility?
• Units advising 'available' on A2 without identifying destination will be assumed
• Rope Log includes which of the following items?
• PDP stands for what in the Skyway Express system?
• In a confined space, product identification is critical to evaluate hazards to rescuers and victims; therefore the Hazmat team should be called as soon as what is recognized?
• If there are 2 entry/exit points into the confined space, what ventilation arrangement may be provided at one entry/exit and to the other?
• Who designates a safety officer when personnel operate in a potentially hazardous atmosphere or other dangerous operations?
• During a hurricane watch, which action is listed?
• What is the correct sequence regarding hot zone commitment and decontamination capabilities?
• Which asset is described as a mud boat?
• Under these conditions the max mph over the posted speed limit is authorized.
• Which of the following is an exception to JFRD's authority to assume command of a hazmat incident?
• Which areas are served by the FM-200 extinguishing system—Control Room, Computer Room, and Signal Room?
• When encountering an untested confined space, personnel should assume the atmosphere is:
• Which station has a Jon boat on lift?
• Open burning must be at least how far from any public highway or road?
• What method is used on the radio for the benefit of surrounding units?
• Extinguishers for electrical fires in elevator equipment should be rated for which class?
• A secondary RIT consists of which units?
• Which procedure completes the transfer of command?
• Which boat has the highest fire pump capacity?
• In the described system, which vehicle is used to supply compressed air for filling SCBA cylinders?
• Which ladder item involves a heavy duty cutting tool?
• Defensive attack is directed at which of the following?
• Transformers at the control center and each substation supply power to which?
• What is the purpose of the Metro-Jax talkgroup?
• Subdividing incidents leaders may be called by which titles?
• Which are general methods used for decontamination?
• Which color code corresponds to ambulatory (minor) victims?
• On structures other than small single family residences, an which shall be requested?
• What is a major factor in preserving and protecting crime scenes, and must be maintained to assure the safety of everyone involved?
• ARFF units utilize the Cecil ground channel to communicate with which facility?
• Airport Emergency Plan (AEP) is carried by which units?
• What is the term for the decon process used to rapidly reduce contaminants on skin and clothing?
• Which action is part of the hurricane alert checklist?
• Which agency is listed as having jurisdiction over marine hazmat incidents, making them an exception to command?
• What FRCC announcement follows Alert 3?
• In a confined space, the potential for a flammable atmosphere should be treated as what level of consideration?
• MCI 413: establish command fog - which Fog?
• Which statement is true about rehab procedures after intense work?
• MCI 413: first arriving unit duties correspond to which FOG?
• Which item is not listed as engine RIT equipment?
• Hydrant 1 at JIA is located where?
• If the IC decides an additional alarm is needed for a single family residence, it should be called for when?
• For commercial land clearing, if not using an Air Curtain Incinerator, the burn must be at least how many feet from any occupied building?
• What is the most potentially destructive force of a major hurricane?
• Units in quarters will acknowledge receipt of dispatch by performing one of the following in descending order. Which action is listed first?
• Command will be established on all wildland fires involving FRL or greater?
• Emergency walkways are provided on which side of the Skyway cars?
• Jet engines have both hazard zones when the engines are running or idle. Which zones are these?
• When completing JFRD Rehab Form 2, include which item?
• Subdivisions of incidents may be called what?
• All JFRD vehicles shall be operated in compliance with which statutes?
• Which channel is used for Nassau Fire/Rescue (dispatch)?
• Who determines entry into the bomb perimeter?
• What wind speed defines a Category 5 hurricane with catastrophic damage?
• In kernmantle rope, the outer sheath provides approximately what percent of tensile strength?
• Which asset is NOT listed as a JFRD marine asset?
• The Florida interoperability network (FIN) radio is used to do what?
• For structure fires, when does the 10 minute increment timer begin?
• Command is transferred only when which condition has been met?
• A crank for manual operation is provided in which part of the elevator system?
• Which channel designates EMS West and is monitored by FRCC at all times?
• How many power rails power the cars traction motors?
• Unless rescue is required, the incident commander should not commit personnel to the hot zone until what is available?
• Who is responsible for designating the entry point within a Rapid Intervention Team operation?
• Which asset is at station 32?
• Which units, being quicker and more maneuverable, may pass slower units?
• Non-display radios can access only the first 3 ABC.
• Which mph range defines Category 3 hurricane?
• Extended response ICS is characterized by _____.
• When a downed firefighter is found, what is the most important action?
• What is the function of D and E flight?
• After the Health and Safety Officer is notified, who will be notified next?
• All personnel entering a confined space must don which combination of PPE and equipment?
• Open burning of land clearing debris within how many feet of any public highway or road?
• The goal of triage is to quickly identify those victims who are in the most need of rapid treatment and transport, and to determine where they are found in less than 60 seconds.
• How many items comprise the JFRD riding list?
• When completing JFRD Rehab Form 1, include which item?
• Which category is associated with devastating damage?
• Draft marks are located forward, midship, and aft on most vessels. Which statement best describes their locations?
• In the RPM triage method, what tag is assigned if a patient has 31 or more respirations?
• Which statement is least aligned with standard confined space entry requirements?
• In a fire in an elevator machine room, extinguishers should be used for which class fires?
• In Level 2 staging, the area where apparatus and resources are held is called what?
• When is the decon team dispatched?
• In hostage incidents, which entity shall notify relief companies to allow for preparation and travel time?
• Which channel is designated for Dispatch?
• If hoistway doors must be forced open to remove passengers, the opening force should be applied at the level of what feature?
• Active assailant incidents: Incidents are often over before law enforcement arrives, usually within:
• Hydrant 1 at Cecil airport is located where?
• Which pair of officials is listed as capable of issuing evacuation orders for the public?
• In complexes with private hydrants, the third engine should stage on a municipal hydrant outside the complex. Which option states this?
• Do sirens automatically grant the right of way to emergency vehicles?
• Which role on scene is responsible for life safety and determining if the involved building is tenable for interior operations?
• From what angle should you typically approach military aircraft to avoid hazards posed by armament, fusible plugs, and navigational aids?
• Who determines the area to stage the RIT crew after reporting to IC?
• During emergency runs, siren use should be limited to between which hours?
• Citations may be issued if open burning occurs within how many feet of an active runway at an approved public airport?
• Access to the downed firefighter should use which approach?
• What is the primary consideration in size-up of a hazmat incident and the prime responsibility of the first arriving unit?
• Which option is NOT a listed case for automatic W4 signal?
• After the initial report, which role will be notified next?
• The RIT group OIC will designate an entry point based on what?
• 24-36 hours prior to landfall corresponds to which hurricane stage?
• Which description defines Alert 3?
• In a mayday call, LIP stands for which of the following?
• Which item is NOT part of the ATU landing zone criteria?
• What action should RIT take with doors and windows as they move through the structure?
• Missing personnel are assumed to be what until proven otherwise?
• Which statement best reflects how incident complexity affects ICS deployment?
• The DVRS provides which benefit in challenging structure types?
• For residential land clearing, a burn must be at least how many feet from any occupied building?
• The last resort method for removing a victim from an elevator is through which means?
• Wet-soap decon removes up to what percentage of contaminants on PPE?
• What is the purpose of elevator equipment if proper conditions for running are not met?
• In a wildland fire, a structure may be deemed hopeless when which condition exists?
• Which of the following is NOT a general decontamination method?
• In an active assailant incident, casualty collection point is best described as a location where:
• Which statement about secondary search is true?
• For ladders, the minimum number of utility lines is which of the following?
• The incident commander must request the state fire marshal for which condition?
• Who shall walk completely around the structure making note of openings and problems delaying deployment?
• Field personnel are responsible for what task until power is restored?
• What is the purpose of the Action Circle on extrication scenes?
• When does hurricane season run?
• Which scenario would trigger a state fire marshal investigation according to the given guidelines?
• Who coordinates the exposure notification and post-exposure management process for infectious exposure?
• What voltage do the DC generators in locomotives present an electrical hazard during derailments?
• Which boat has a beam of 10'5?
• Which boat measures 50 feet in length?
• Primary search should be conducted in which areas?
• Which device is used to locate heat signatures through smoke during shipboard fires?
• During periods of heavy radio traffic, non-emergency status changes should be conducted via which method?
• Which sequence is true for FRCC alerts and roll call during a Mayday?
• Aircraft emergencies are divided into how many categories?
• According to MCI 413, which FOGs are defined for incident management?
• For the ladder, which item is listed as a consideration for placement?
• To help identify the hazard, personnel should check for which of the following?
• The Rescue District/Battalion Chief on scene shall ensure that post fire decon is performed for members reporting to rehab. Which option best represents the responsible position?
• Which agency is identified as the Captain of the Port in the context of port safety and security?
• Full treatment for most communicable diseases can be initiated within how many hours without complications?
• Which acronym denotes the airport authority responsible for owning and operating the airport?
• Staging shall be divided into how many levels based on size and complexity?
• Where are the nickel-cadmium (nicad) batteries located?
• Which factor is the most potentially destructive force in a major hurricane?
• Who tests and certifies safe use of SCBA and face pieces, and how is it evaluated?
• Which ladder RIT equipment item uses a specialized blade?
• In an active assailant incident, the appropriate what will be dispatched?
• Which statement best captures the decontamination decision factors: health hazards, skin effects, toxicity, reactivity, solubility?
• How many primary hydrants are there at JIA for ARFF apparatus refill?
• What is the minimum diastolic blood pressure within the SOG 436 rehab range?
• According to SOG 436 rehab, what is the acceptable diastolic blood pressure range?
• PPV in confined space ventilation stands for?
• During a shipboard fire/incident, which role has ultimate authority for safety?
• During a hostage situation, all units will respond in what status?
• For a residential structure fire, the primary suppression apparatus consists of which engines?
• Airport Emergency Plan (AEP) stands for?
• What component is automatically released by a cam on the elevator car when the car is within a few inches of floor level?
• The ICS is a management process enabling -
• What is a primary effect of activating the orange emergency alarm button?
• When DVRS is utilized, what action is described?
• Who designates Level 2 staging officer and the formal staging area?
• Which list comprises the five hurricane stages?
• The incident is considered to be in rescue mode until which event occurs?
• The use of ICS is mandatory on ______.
• If it is suspected that an incident was caused by a bomb, when can JFRD personnel enter the perimeter?
• Secondary search is performed after which action to absolutely confirm the presence or absence of victims?
• Which statement about the 800 mhz tier 3 radios for administrative and chief officers is true?
• Which chiefs are listed as currently having DVRS in their vehicles?
• The fluid is under high pressure and has an extremely high ignition temperature; Which statement best describes this?
• In a residential structure fire, how many engines constitute the primary suppression apparatus?
• Which entity shall have command and control for barricaded subjects or hostage situations?
• NOT listed as equipment ladder companies shall bring?
• Which agency assigns the frequency used by the ground guide to contact the ATU?
• Before the vehicle is permitted to move, who will confirm that all personnel and riders are on board, PPE if necessary, and wearing seatbelts?
• Power failures at the station shall be reported to which entity?
• The doors of Skyway cars have tempered glass windows; the remaining windows are made of which material?
• Which mph range defines Category 4 hurricane?
• Which entity owns and operates the airport and is the controlling entity for all airport operations?
• During hours when there is no operator on duty, the Skyway Express will be in which state?
• To ensure rapid and efficient control of hazmat incidents, the JFRD incident commander should utilize the expertise of which group?
• Which FRL indicates a fire situation that is expected to be difficult, with potential carryover from the previous day and new fires starting?
• Which mph range defines Category 1 hurricane?
• Colored ribbons for MCI color coding-CD mapping: Red-Immediate; Yellow-Delayed; Green-Ambulatory; Black-Deceased. Which option lists this color mapping correctly?
• Which statement best describes the purpose of the W4 signal's minimum apparatus?
• The special operations team is comprised of which fire stations?
• Rescue 16 is not to be used as a transfer company. Which option correctly answers which Rescue unit this applies to?
• Before committing JFRD personnel to a hazmat incident, which factors must be considered?
• Which Fog number outlines the duties of the staging officer?
• Who is ultimately responsible for accountability at all incidents?
• Initial response ICS is implemented within the ____ of an incident.
• How long after initial dispatch does FRCC rebroadcast the assigned talk group?
• JFRD's responsibility during a Bomb/WMD investigation is which two functions only?
• What is the status label when the FIN is connected to the 800 MHz radio system to enable mutual aid communication?
• Into what should soiled/contaminated uniforms or protective clothing be placed before processing?
• Ballistic vests and helmets are only to be worn when directed by which position?
• Which boat lists 2 1/2 inch and 5 inch discharges along with one fixed monitor?
• Train derailments: primary concern of railroad personnel on scene may be to-
• What does LCES stand for in wildland fire safety?
• During a live Special Event, FRCC monitors which channel?
• Which channel would you use for EMS West communications?
• Establishing command refers to which action?
• The Incident Commander must assume responsibility for which of the following?
• Which stage occurs after landfall?
• Engulfment in a confined space is defined as the surrounding and effective capture of a person by what?
• The success of decon operations is based on which factor?
• On what date of each year does the station captain report deficiencies to the Battalion Chief through chain of command?
• A casualty collection point in an active assailant incident is best described as a location where responders can receive patients from law enforcement.
• One-half inch lifeline has a tensile strength of which value?
• Hurricane: JFRD activities will fall primarily under which branch of the EOC operations section?
• Where is the Fire Control Plan likely to be found?
• In the hurricane alert checklist, which action is listed?
• How should the emergency alarm button be reset after the emergency ends?
• In the MCI RPM-P protocol, how should major bleeding be handled?
• Where should contaminated uniforms be delivered for processing?
• Immediately after identifying the hazard, which shall be established?
• What is the definition of Design?
• A wildland fire is considered contained when there is what?
• Hanna Park is not monitored by FRCC on which channel?
• Who defines aircraft emergencies to provide standard descriptions and terminology?
• After the first arriving unit reports 'situation stable', additional units shall continue response with which of the following?
• An MCI is an incident resulting from what?
• Do not store rope in compartments with or near which items?
• Prior permission must be obtained before ARFF apparatus leave the airport property from whom?
• Which approach increases the chances of saving lives and property during a fire?
• Which MCI trailer carries equipment for LONG TERM needs throughout the region?
• Before using the last resort method, ensure that which has been disconnected?
• If necessary to travel in center or oncoming lanes, the max permissible speed shall be the -
• An Attendant at a Confined Space incident is the person in charge of the hot zone and is responsible for:
• Fireground operations must be structured around the completion of which process?
• FRL 2 indicates what about anticipated fires and resource use?
• When the ATU is on the ground, which practice is recommended regarding personnel?
• What is recommended for cleaning visibly dirty hands?
• Which pair of channels is monitored by FRCC at all times?
• What kind of maintenance program is essential for the reliable long-term operation of JFRD SCBAs?
• All non-emergency status changes will be conducted on which channel?
• How many spare SCBA bottles should companies bring per person, not including the initial attack team?
• What is the cycle duration for the decontamination process?
• Which zone is the cold zone?
• What is the overall aim of the interoperability features described?
• NPV in ventilation terms stands for?
• Which boat features a landing craft design?
• During the initial response in ICS, radio communications should use which designations?
• What are the three distinct hazmat zones?
• How many primary hydrants are there at Cecil airport?
• If available, what is the best entry route onto the aircraft for victim rescue or interior fire attack?
• The main reason for subdividing an incident is?
• Which of the following is listed as an incident category that the special ops team responds to?
• In fast attack situations, what is required to stabilize the situation?
• How many unique vessel types are listed among the assets?
• What should drivers know about an emergency vehicle's approach?
• How often shall the air quality from compressors, cascade storage cylinders, and related equipment be tested?
• If communications are not available during a hurricane and a staff member took leave, after how many hours will they be considered not reporting?
• What is the most common form of rope destruction?
• Nylon static kernmantle rope becomes sticky at a temperature of about and melts between which temperatures?
• Units must be evacuated how many hours prior to landfall?
• The element that shall be established on all extrication scenes?
• Which units will be dispatched to manage the rehabilitation process?
• An employee suspects someone has an infectious disease. To whom should they report first?
• The Y-Junction area track sections are hydraulically operated and electronically actuated. After power shutdown, these sections are considered what type of hazards?
• A11 and A12 frequencies are best described as what kind and distance?
• What action does the first arriving unit take with respect to ICS?
• Can the Announcement group receive transmissions?
• Which item must never be used in a confined space?
• Active assailant incidents: The assault usually continues until the assailant is:
• Level 2 staging is employed for what type of incidents?
• A11 and A12 are conventional simplex radio frequencies used for short-range communication within distances of 1 mile. Which option describes this?
• In MCI RPM-M, what tag is used when the victim follows commands and is AOx4?
• Which channel is used for dispatch coordination between Nassau Fire/Rescue and other agencies?
• The delineation of hazmat zones is part of incident readiness and response planning for hazardous materials incidents, emphasizing safety and control.
• Which item is NOT listed as safety equipment for the ground guide during ATU operations?
• Which statement describes the Jacksonville lifeguards' radio setup?
• The - will designate a radio talk group to be used for the RIT operation.
• In wildland fire structural protection, what is the maximum allowed hose lay length?
• Which boat has a length of 70' 10?
• Active assailant incidents: the JFRD apparatus will remain in staging until directed by whom?
• What is the proper order of the first three hurricane stages in their occurrence?
• Under less than favorable conditions the maximum permissible speed is the posted speed limit; if necessary to travel in the center or oncoming lanes, the max permissible speed shall be -
• The degree of decontamination is determined by which group?
• Under the NIMS model, who will establish command at the emergency operations center?
• As RIT members move through the structure they should do what?
• Which channel is used for dispatch?
• The manual crank for moving the elevator car is located in which part of the system?
• The breakers located inside equipment rooms at each substation supply power to which components?
• The ICS can be subdivided into - stages
• Which field on the riding list is NOT listed as part of the riding list components?
• When companies are assigned to spare units, who shall be responsible for the vehicle and its equipment?
• Drought index is a measure of what?
• The size of the decon zone is determined by which factor?
• What precedes all dispatches of units in quarters?
• In hurricane warning procedures, which action is specified?
• Assumption of command is discretionary for which ranks?
• Activating the orange emergency alarm button on all radio positions in FRCC sets off an alarm and displays what?
• Which boat has a draft of 3'2?
• What is the function of A flight?
• With the addition of portable radios for all members, the JFRD will:
• Which channel is used for Special Events and monitored by FRCC when in use?
• NFPA standard for a 2-person load is which of the following?
• How many chiefs are listed as having DVRS in their vehicles?
• These leaders will be assigned to oversee a division or a group. What do they oversee?
• Which MCI trailer carries equipment for IMMEDIATE needs on JIA property?
• When the first arriving ladder is assigned to a structure fire, which consideration for ladder placement is listed?
• The second arriving engine on a structure fire should approach the scene how far?
• In hurricane watch procedures, which action is part of the listed items?
• In addition to MDTs, which method can units use to acknowledge dispatch?
• Which boat has a draft of 3' 10?
• O&M Center stands for which of the following?
• When washing rope, it should be washed in which type of water and with what additive?
• What term describes the action to reduce carcinogen exposure during overhaul operations?
• Who is the ultimate decision maker over all port matters?
• The confined space should be ventilated so that levels of combustibles do not exceed what and toxic substances do not reach what?
• A11 and A12 are associated with which agencies?
• The decontamination zone is located in which zone and extends from which zone to which zone?
• Urgent station equipment repairs outside normal business hours that require overtime must be authorized by which position?
• FRCC shall repeat which transmissions from field units?
• Which asset is described as a mud boat?
• Because hostage incidents can be of extended duration, deployments are recommended to be limited to how many hours?
• Who can issue evacuation orders for the public?
• If possible, what should responders do to gather hazard information from the source on scene?
• Tac support contact numbers are which of the following?
• In ATU operations, what call sign is often used to contact the ATU?
• Who is responsible to assure gross decon is established and oversee the gross decon area?
• FRCC will contact field units via which method?
• When the ladder is assigned, what is a primary objective of its placement?
• All dispatches of units on an Available status will be preceded by what?
• Keeping rope clean helps prevent dirt from shortening its life through what mechanism?
• Under FRL 2, what is the expected difficulty in control or mop up?
• Pressurized tanks may be found inside which railcar type?
• Which device is commonly used to assess heat sources inside a burning vessel?
• In which situation should the state fire marshal be requested due to potential danger or severity?
• What is the required ratio of the Rescue/Entry Team (RIT) members to the entry team members for a confined space incident?
• In active assailant incidents, JFRD will not approach the scene until which conditions are met?
• W4 signal: The minimum apparatus assigned to the W4 signal will be which of the following?
• What is the minimum ATU landing zone size?
• Units equipped with MDTs will maintain response status via which method?
• What are the most effective products for reducing germs on the hands of healthcare providers?
• Which statement best defines Carelessness as used in the investigative context?
• If using a washing machine to launder rope, what is required?
• Which boat is not listed as having a heated/air conditioned patient care area?
• Which units are assigned to all incidents involving the decon unit?
• Primary search should be conducted in all involved and exposed occupancies that can be entered. Which option best reflects this guidance?
• Synthetic-based hydraulic fluid is typically found in which quantity throughout the aircraft?
• The time involved in implementing ICS should produce time savings, through -
• When the drought index reaches 400 or higher, the fire needs to be checked daily until it is cold. The question: how often should checks be performed until it is cold?
• Train derailments: FRCC keeps rail maps with mile markers to aid in locating incidents. What item is kept to aid locating derailments?
• The FM-200 extinguishing system is used in which areas of the Skyway building?
• SAR is required under which condition during confined space entry?
• All structure fires require at least how many squads assigned as RIT?
• How many water supply sources should be established at shipboard fires?
• The ICS can be subdivided into two stages: which pair?
• Who should be contacted for consultation before attempting to pull out any JFRD vehicle which has become stuck?
• During softening operation the RIT should maintain a - member team including themselves, uncommitted for rapid deployment and reduced fatigue.
• A confined space is defined as a space that is not intended for continuous occupancy, has limited openings for entry and exit, and has unfavorable natural ventilation. Which option best matches this definition?
• In this context, ARFF OIC refers to which role?
• Which channel is primarily used on marine incidents involving multiple agencies and not monitored by FRCC?
• In the combined territories of stations 1, 2, 4, 5, and 9, how many engines and ladders are maintained?
• Which FRL requires outside assistance beyond a 24 hour period?
• In bomb incidents, which scenario is listed as an exception to the perimeter entry restriction?
• If a response is not received from a dispatched unit within 15 seconds, FRCC will attempt to contact the unit directly by what means?
• What is the primary purpose of the Announcement group?
• JFRD SCBAs meet the requirements of which NFPA standard?
• Blue light stations must be activated on which sides of the emergency as well as the station involved?
• Where is the Skyway Express control center building located?
• Which boat has a length of 37 feet?
• To minimize disturbance of evidence at a crime scene, responders should move in and out along what kind of path?
• Which guidelines should be followed when cleaning PPE?
• The red phone system will do what?
• Where are the electronics located in the Skyway cars?
• Which boat is equipped with CBRNE monitoring equipment?
• In vessel fires, what is a major concern affecting the rotation intervals between entry teams?
• Administrative and chief officers have programmable portable radios that are capable of which tier?
• Gross decon is performed in which location?
• What is the primary objective when selecting the entry point?
• Which asset is at station 42?
• Requests for station equipment problems shall be submitted through or by calling which location and number?
• All corrective measures for the hurricane season checklist are to be completed prior to which date?
• What should be placed at the entry point to enhance visibility of the escape route?
• Who monitors operations as part of incident command in hazmat response?
• The entry point should be which of the following?
• Daily soil moisture readings used to determine the drought index are taken by which agency?
• The Announcement group broadcasts to which groups?
• The _____ is the final authority for the incident.
• Which mph range defines Category 2 hurricane?
• Which squad item is used for signaling or lighting?
• During a hurricane watch, designated stations should what?
• In a commercial structure fire, how many engines constitute the primary suppression apparatus?
• FRCC shall divert units to other incidents based on the criterion that?
• Draft marks: when firefighting operations are ongoing, the location where water touches the draft marks should be noted at which times?
• Which position receives deficiency reports from the station captain?
• Establishing incident command is required by which of the following?
• Other vehicles shall not pass each other unless which condition is met?
• Divisions may be designated as follows, except which option is NOT a division designation?
• Which incident category is listed for W3s involving large commercial structures?
• Which boat has a fire pump rated at 1500 GPM?
• Extended response ICS is implemented when an operation may _____.
• What is prohibited in the area where the SCBA face piece seals with the face?
• The initial MCI level will be based on the estimated numbers prior to what?
• Which asset is at station 40?
• A roll call will be initiated when which condition exists?
• Which option represents all defined alert levels for aircraft incidents?
• What is the hydrostatic testing interval for air cascade storage cylinders and carbon fiber SCBA cylinders?
• Which authority should be consulted before performing extrication or metal cutting operations?
• Which factor is used to determine the needed response to an aircraft incident?
• ARFF units communicate with Air Traffic Control Tower via which ground channel?
• Before attempting fire control in an elevator machine room, what action must be secured?
• Which category is described as catastrophic damage?
• What is the function of C flight?
• Whose responsibility is tracking personnel on a scene?
• Which squad RIT item is used for patient transport?
• Where may waybills be located?
• Within how many seconds must a response be received before FRCC will attempt to contact the unit directly by radio and/or red phone?
• Which statement best describes the SCBA usage during entry?
• The initial assignment dispatched is dictated by which of the following?
• Whose responsibility is the cleaning, maintenance and storage of the SAR system?
• What is the correct order of reporting from the first person to the next official when a suspected infectious disease is involved?
• During extended operations, how much fluid should each individual drink per hour?
• When hands are not visibly dirty, which method is preferred for cleaning your hands in the healthcare setting?
• In the RPM triage method, after attempting to open the airway, if spontaneous respiration resumes, what tag should be assigned?
• Which tone precedes dispatches of units on an Available status?
• Which statement describes the function of the A1 channel?
• When a hazmat incident is reported, FRCC will obtain information including which of the following?
• Which channel is designated for EMS East?
• Back up FRCC is located at which location?
• How often should rope inspections be noted in the rope log?
• Which hazard must be considered by the first arriving engine related to lines?
• If TRT is not already on scene, should be dispatched as soon as -.
• Which factor dictates the resources necessary for efficient command operations?
• Debris off-site burning requires using what device and permit?
• Hydrant 2 at JIA is located where?
• What are the two phases in which searches occur on the fireground in this guideline?
• Which of the following best represents the factors that dictate the needed response to an aircraft incident?
• Which component has the ability to shutdown power to the entire Skyway Express system at once or in sections?